Hi everyone, So i am noob. I dont understand what is going on. (I used babypips + some other formulas). Equity 100$ no profit no losses If my deposit 100$ with 1:20 leverage. I want to buy eurousd 0.01 lot. My required margin is 52.655 . Then I calculate Margin level Margin Level = (Equity / Used Margin) x 100% === 100$/52.655*100 = 189.9% = my margin level% BUT IF my deposit 100$ with 1:500 leverage. I want to buy eurousd 0.01 lot. My required margin is 2.1062 . Then I calculate Margin level Margin Level = (Equity / Used Margin) x 100% === 100$/2.1062*100 = 4747.887% = my margin level% So what if going on, am i dont understand something? Why :500 leverage seem to be safer than :20 for 0.01 lot size?
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It seems that ForexVPS offers free vps-services as long as certain monthly trading volumes are met and I was wondering about the method of calculation. For example, the “Basic+” plan has a minimum of 10 lots to be free of charge...now if just I were to open 10 1-lot trades and immediately close them again throughout the month, would the goal still be met?
Margin requirements for forex futures trades placed in early morning
I’m new to the concept of futures trading, and am interested in day trading Forex futures (like GBPUSD). What I’m confused about is this: there is a certain margin requirement for trades placed during “normal hours”, and a different, much higher one for “overnight”. It’s not clear what normals hours and overnight really means for currency futures. Considering I’d be trading with a small account, I wouldn’t want the “overnight” margins to apply. If I were to place a trade at say 4AM EST, which margin requirement would apply? Is it only that the overnight margin applies when you hold a trade from before close to after close, or does it also apply to anything that’s placed outside the typical 8/9AM-4/5PM zone? Thank you Edit: I think my confusion is cleared up now. What confused me was the terminology, “overnight” made it sound like a trade placed at night or before regular morning hours would require maintenance margin. What it actually means is holding an open trade during the 1hr time period between open and close, ie 5-6PM EST. A trade opened outside of that period wouldn’t require maintenance margin, as long as the trade was closed before the next 5PM EST close of the market. So, if I were to open a trade at 4AM EST, it wouldn’t require maintenance margin unless I held it past 5PM EST, so I would just need to make sure it was closed before then. I wouldn’t hold through that period anyway for what I’m doing (day trading). Thanks everyone for your replies.
I am planning to start live trading and Forex.com seems appealing (any other suggestions?) in Canada. I can’t seem to find their margin interest rates. Can anyone help me out? Thanks!
In this blog, you'll get to know about What is Leverage and Margin in Forex, Relationship between Leverage and Margin, What each type of Leverage Ratio means, Difference between Leverage and Margin, What is the optimal leverage ratio for forex market beginners? Source:https://www.inveslo.com/blog/forex/leverage-and-margin-in-forex-trading
Questions regarding cost basis calculation and offsetting forex gains with crypto asset losses
Hi there, I came back to Japan late last year after spending many years working abroad and am having a hard time wrapping my head around the intricate tax system here. I have been lurking on this forum for a few months now, and I must say the amazing wealth of information gathered here has been really helpful. Huge thanks to u/starkimpossibility and the rest of the crew. You guys are doing an amazing job! That being said, there are still some points for which I cannot seem to find a clear answer, be it here or on the website of the NTA. I'd really appreciate it if someone can shed a light on these. #1 Can cryptocurrency capital gains/losses and foreign exchange gains/losses offset each other? I gather from StarkImpossibility's hugely helpful [Guide to the Taxation of Foreign Currency](https://www.reddit.com/JapanFinance/comments/u9akd5/guide_to_the_taxation_of_foreign_currency/) that foreign currency gains / losses are categorized as "various income" (各種所得). I also understand from StarkImpossibility's equally amazing [Updated Cryptocurrency Tax Guide](https://www.reddit.com/JapanFinance/comments/ll4dic/updated_cryptocurrency_tax_guide/) and from the NTA's very own [Tax Treatment of Crypto Assets](https://www.nta.go.jp/publication/pamph/pdf/virtual_currency_faq_03.pdf) document that capital gains from the liquidation of crypto-assets are considered as "miscellaneous income" (雑所得). I cannot find however anywhere where it is stated that "various income" (各種所得) is the same thing as "miscellaneous income" (雑所得) and therefore whether foreign currency gains / losses belong to the same category of taxable income as crypto assets capital gains / losses and whether they can offset each other. All I could find was [this third party website](https://seiwa-group.or.jp/2022/06/01/所得税法上の為替差損益の取り扱い/) that gives an evasive answer > （※2）為替差損益の所得分類は雑所得という考え方のほか、譲渡所得という見解もあります > (*2) In addition to the idea that foreign exchange gains and losses are classified as miscellaneous income, there is also a view that they are transfer income. #2 What is the cost basis of cryptoassets that were acquired before moving to Japan? I understand from the aforementioned taxation guides that the cost basis for assets purchased while being a tax resident of Japan is calculated using the Moving Average Method, and that since 2019 the Total Average Method applies by default to crypto assets unless a derogation is obtained from the NTA. But what of the assets that were purchased before becoming a tax resident of Japan? Where I was living before moving to Japan, tax authorities would allow to chose between LIFO, FIFO and lot based accounting. As a result, I have been managing my portfolio using the FIFO method, and assuming that older assets were being liquidated first and that the cost basis for each asset in my portfolio was the weighted average of all the unspent lots i.e. the most recently purchased lots. Assuming that, I have made sure to "roll" (i.e. selling and repurchasing immediately) key assets in my portfolio to realize capital gains and set a new, higher cost basis before coming back to Japan. So which cost-basis applies? The one at which I rolled my positions as per the FIFO principle that was applicable then, or the Total / Moving Average Method? If the latter, does that mean that the NTA expects people coming from foreign to redo their entire accounting going back several (potentially many) years just to apply an accounting method they didn't know they would have to apply in the future? #3 Are non-current assets considered fungible with the corresponding current assets? I have USD and other currencies and asset deposits locked in time deposits, life insurance plans, pension plans etc. some of which I cannot access at all before I reach the age of retirement, and some of which I cannot withdraw without terminating the plan and incurring heavy financial penalties. Are these currency and asset deposits considered fungible with immediately available currency / asset balances? In other words, am I supposed to also include the purchase price of these assets in the moving average / total average cost basis calculation? #4 Are liabilities considered fungible with the current assets? If I borrow cash, is the amount I borrowed also supposed to be included in the calculation of the overall cost basis for the asset? If I lend cash, is the amount I lent still supposed to be included in the calculation of the overall cost basis for the asset? When the borrower repays me the cash I lent them, is the money I'm getting back supposed to be included in the calculation of the overall cost basis for the asset? Is lending funds a taxable event like gifting or selling is? I have a credit card denominated in a foreign currency that I am using regularly in Japan since I have arrived. I always make sure that the card is charged in JPY and not in its native currency. So each time I use it, I incur a liability in JPY on D-day, that is converted to a liability in the foreign currency on next business day. At the end of the month, I settle the credit card bill in foreign currency. How are foreign currency gains calculated in that case? Are they calculated at each transaction using the transaction date, or only once when I settle the credit card bill at the end of the month? So many questions but I stop here as this is getting a bit too long. Thanks in advance for your help! Edit: small corrections
Hi all, wondering what the strategy is for a calculation like this. Setup: At an auction, vendors sell commodities A, B, and C at whatever price point they choose. I use 10 of A, 5 of B, and 2 of C to make my product, which I want to sell for $50 (this is fixed for the purpose of this exercise). There is a central digital screen showing what commodities each vendor has at each price. I want to understand what strategies/formulas/mathematics we can use to maximize profits, where the output would tell me how much of each commodity to buy, at what price point, and what the total profit would be. For Example:Buy 300 A at $25 eachBuy 150 B at $10 eachBuy 60 C at $3 each If we need to assume a minimum margin, let's say it's 10%.
I've hunted a lot for this and I feel insane. How do I get total cost of the products for a specific quote? It would be nice to have a margin field on the quote page where we're doing our discounting. I have a net price field, but not a total cost field. I can find other people complaining, but no how to on fixing it. What am I missing? Am I using the wrong search terms? Like I can run a report and get unit cost and qty and add a formula field to multiply it. That works, but I still need another formula to go from that to calculating margin. And I can only have one formula field per report. So no calculating gross profit and margin percentage that way. I need this to be a fairly smooth process for my users. I don't want to have them export the report to excel and run a macro to get some basic number. Having to go to a report and filter by their quote number would be bad enough.
Matching of forex transactions for Tax calculation
I've read somewhere that on Interactive Brokers (don't know how true this is), when you buy say USD with GBP, you are not actually owning dollars, but opening a USD denominated short position on an instrument called GBP.USD, but it still effectively looks like owning dollars. I'm using an open source script (written by a UK forex trader) to parse IB html which includes these GBP.USD transactions, and it shows the opening and closing of short positions and calculates P/L based on that. Although IB does show your currency positions on the activity report, it only shows transactions involving the GBP.USD instrument in the trading confirmations report. Now, my problem is not with the USD transactions, but I'm wondering how this concept plays out with some of my Euro transactions. I had converted GBP to EUR and well as USD to EUR. Normally you would think both pools of Euros are just that, Euros, and can be considered together. But in the IB world this could look like a GBP denominated long position in the instrument EUR.GBP and a USD denominated long position in the instrument EUR.USD separately. So when I convert some Euros to GBP, IB is actually closing the EUR.GBP position, and if I convert some USD to EUR, IB actually opens additional EUR.USD long positions. Suppose these last two conversions happen within the space of 30 days. If I think this in terms of Euros, then I have disposed off and reacquired Euros, so might hit the BnB rule (or maybe not, since even in that case, pounds are not used to purchase the new Euros?), but if I think in terms of the instruments that IB is supposedly'holding in the background (again, this is what is implied in the trade confirmations), then the BnB rule won't be hit since these are separate instruments. I suspect the latter is the case, and this is indeed what the software does, but I would like to know for sure from people experienced with this topic.
How does the calculation of interest on cash balances work with margin?
Let’s say I have $100,000 in cash and sell some cash secured puts. Will I still earn interest on the full $100,000 or will I only earn interest on $100,000 MINUS any margin required for the cash secured puts?
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