i called fidelity and they told me there weren’t enough sellers for the buyers but i set my sells for $50-250. (which were cancelled. so basically they didn’t want to pay that price. i’m not the only one that set a limit.
Does the ratio (rather than absolute number) of buyers and sellers have any influence on market competitiveness? Intuition would indicate so, but I've never heard of any formal treatment of this in economics.
I'm not an economist obviously but have a basic education in it. My understanding of the canonical economic conception of "perfect competition" is basically a "large number" of buyers and sellers, plus perfect access to relevant information. Wikipedia has this expanded definition (emphasis mine):
all firms contribute insignificantly to the market, all firms sell an identical product, all firms are price takers, market share has no influence on price, both buyers and sellers have complete or "perfect" information, resources are perfectly mobile and firms can enter or exit the market without cost
which in turn is taken from thesetwo websites so I don't even know how much this reflects the position of real economists. My interest is in the "all firms are price takers" point, and what exactly that entails. Realistically, all sellers (and buyers) do exert some bargaining power, even if very very small. Intuitively, you would think that if there was a very lopsided ratio of buyers and sellers, the smaller side would be able to bargain for a more favorable price and shift the market equilibrium away from what it would be if the ratio were more equal, even if the absolute number of both buyers and sellers were each very large. Would that be considered an uncompetitive market, and would it allocate resources less efficiently than a "balanced" market? I was able to find this post from last year, which gets at a similar idea. Canonically, a monopoly should result in higher prices, while a monopsony should result in lower prices. But what if the market was 1:1? The top comment indicates there is not a "canonical model of price setting", but that some researchers have come up with ways to essentially game theorize about and quantify bargaining power in such a situation, and that in the 1:1 example it should indeed result in an intermediate price. But that's just in that very specific case. So is this whole parameter of buyeseller ratio just largely unexplored in economics? And do you think that is for good reason, or is something fundamental about the way markets work being missed? Going back to that comment from the old post, that sounds to me like the beginning of a formal game theory of market competitiveness, that could expand on the classic definition of competitiveness and potentially work out an exact contribution of bargaining power from buyeseller ratio. Would such a conception make sense? Would it improve the field, fill in gaps in understanding, or explain real world economies better? Sorry that's a broad question, but I want to invite broad discussion if that's ok.
When a horse sellers says “make up your mind quickly, there is another potential buyer interested “ is that always true ? Im Stressing out cause I really fell in love but I don’t want to rush myself either .
Roger Ver: “The #BitcoinCash white-paper makes it clear that Bitcoin is about “commerce,” “transactions,” “payments,” “merchants,” “buyers,” and “sellers.” There is not a single mention of a “store of value” in the entire whitepaper”
Bond rates have been falling. That means the price of the bond has been increasing which means buyers are more than sellers. But who is buying? Well this $200 billion leaving overnight repo might have something to do with it. Overnight repo has fallen to lowest dollar amount since June. = fed pivot.
10/10 seller - I see a LOT of negative posts about sellers and buyers alike and I just wanted to take a second to show off my most recent purchase. This seller went above and beyond to be sure my item was shipped quickly (same day I purchased), and that it made it in perfect condition. Thank you!
hear me out - doesn't this chart from realtors.com prove that buyers are dropping out more than sellers?
Ok, so realtor.com posted their weekly housing update today. One of the foremost bullish analyses for the housing market is the lock-in effect - that is, we will see a decline in new listings because homeowners are disincentivized to sell given the disparity between current mortgage rates and their locked-in low rates. While we are seeing a decline in new listings yeaover-year (though that's been relatively steady at -10 to -15%), the change in active inventory seems to be growing yeaover-year in spite of the decline in new listings. The 3 previous weeks for the change in active inventory yeaover-year is as follows: +31%, +34%, now +36%. Doesn't that prove buyers are dropping out more than sellers and (assuming rates remain elevated in the 7% range), active inventory should continue to grow? For reference, here is the realtor.com chart: Realtor.com Economics (@RDC_Economics) / Twitter
good news for the pound sterling because it recovers that important 2020 support against the dollar, for the sterling sellers the 100 period moving average is important because it has marked the downward trend of the pound and the fact of surpassing it would provide more support to pound buyers!
Does anyone ever happen this before? I tried to buy put but got typo and enter nearly 10 times of asking price. But the order didn’t fill…. I asked custom service they said it’s due to delay that can’t match the buyers and sellers. But limit order above asking price should just process immediately…
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